Hey guys, I started my MEB/PEB on November 14th, 2013 and am awaiting my VA ratings.
On my DA3947, I have 21 total listings, two of which do not meet retention standards (DDD of cervical spine with cervical radiculopathy & DDD of the lumbar spine with radiculopathy).
10 of the listings say "Meets retention standards" (DJD right ankle, DJD left ankle, surgical scars, TMJ dysfunction, hearing loss, bilateral tinnitus, congenital tympanic perforation, deviated nasal septum, and right shoulder bicipital tendinitis).
9 of the listings say "No medical basis" (right and left knee strain, right and left shoulder impingement syndrome, right hip pain non-specific, right and left ankle sprain chronic, cholesteatoma, and adhesive middle ear disease).
My questions are this...
The listings that say "No medical basis"...will they automatically get 0% from the VA because there is apparently no medical basis? With the same logic, will the listings that say "meet retention standards" automatically get a percentage because there is apparently medical basis?
The two listings that do not meet retention standards, will they rate each condition with the radiculopathy or rate the radiculopathy separate? The radiculopathy is located in the same box as the DDD.
Also on the DDD with radiculopathy, does the DoD use the same ratings process the VA does? For example, if the cervical DDD with radiculopathy is rated 20% and the lumbar is 10%, will that equal 30%?
Any help is greatly appreciated!
On my DA3947, I have 21 total listings, two of which do not meet retention standards (DDD of cervical spine with cervical radiculopathy & DDD of the lumbar spine with radiculopathy).
10 of the listings say "Meets retention standards" (DJD right ankle, DJD left ankle, surgical scars, TMJ dysfunction, hearing loss, bilateral tinnitus, congenital tympanic perforation, deviated nasal septum, and right shoulder bicipital tendinitis).
9 of the listings say "No medical basis" (right and left knee strain, right and left shoulder impingement syndrome, right hip pain non-specific, right and left ankle sprain chronic, cholesteatoma, and adhesive middle ear disease).
My questions are this...
The listings that say "No medical basis"...will they automatically get 0% from the VA because there is apparently no medical basis? With the same logic, will the listings that say "meet retention standards" automatically get a percentage because there is apparently medical basis?
The two listings that do not meet retention standards, will they rate each condition with the radiculopathy or rate the radiculopathy separate? The radiculopathy is located in the same box as the DDD.
Also on the DDD with radiculopathy, does the DoD use the same ratings process the VA does? For example, if the cervical DDD with radiculopathy is rated 20% and the lumbar is 10%, will that equal 30%?
Any help is greatly appreciated!