Hello All,
I'm a bit confused on how some people from across different branches say they were able to utilize their remaining leave as terminal leave at the end of a PEB determination and how others were not so lucky and in fact had to sell all their leave.
I specifically found the following excerpt from AFI 36-3212 Regulation on Physical Evaluation and Retention branch specific, it states under,
5.19. Date of Disability Retirement or Discharge:
5.19.2. If members have not previously sold 60 days of accrued leave after 10 February 1976, they
must sell the leave at separation or retirement. Members retiring or separating for disability may use
accrued leave that they can not sell back. If they have sold the maximum leave permitted by law, HQ
AFPC/DPPD will add their accrued leave to the 20-day processing time (30 days if overseas) to arrive
at the final discharge or retirement date (see AFI 36-3003, paragraph 3.13.1).
Reading the above passage, it is giving no option to go on terminal leave except for people who have sold at least 60 days of leave in the past. My question is what is right and what is wrong? Can you do it or can you not? If I have to sell my leave so be it, but I would rather use it as terminal as it would be a better option. Thanks ahead of time guys.
I'm a bit confused on how some people from across different branches say they were able to utilize their remaining leave as terminal leave at the end of a PEB determination and how others were not so lucky and in fact had to sell all their leave.
I specifically found the following excerpt from AFI 36-3212 Regulation on Physical Evaluation and Retention branch specific, it states under,
5.19. Date of Disability Retirement or Discharge:
5.19.2. If members have not previously sold 60 days of accrued leave after 10 February 1976, they
must sell the leave at separation or retirement. Members retiring or separating for disability may use
accrued leave that they can not sell back. If they have sold the maximum leave permitted by law, HQ
AFPC/DPPD will add their accrued leave to the 20-day processing time (30 days if overseas) to arrive
at the final discharge or retirement date (see AFI 36-3003, paragraph 3.13.1).
Reading the above passage, it is giving no option to go on terminal leave except for people who have sold at least 60 days of leave in the past. My question is what is right and what is wrong? Can you do it or can you not? If I have to sell my leave so be it, but I would rather use it as terminal as it would be a better option. Thanks ahead of time guys.